This is the previous year 2018 question paper, which we have formulated in the form of quiz. First ten questions are from General aptitude while others include from Engineering Mathematics, General Biology, Genetics, cellular and molecular biology etc. Do let us know if this was useful. Best of luck.

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GATE Biotechnology 2018 question paper

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Click to solve 2019 Biotechnology Paper

“When she fell down the _______, she received many _______ but little help.” The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are

stairs, stares

stairs, stairs

stares, stairs

stares, stares

“In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his _________ behaviour.” The word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is

rational

reasonable

errant

good

For 0 ≤ x ≤ 2π, sin x and cos x are both decreasing functions in the interval ________.

(0,π/2)

(π/2, π)

(π, 3π/2)

(3π/2, 2π)

The area of an equilateral triangle is √3. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

Arrange the following three-dimensional objects in the descending order of their volumes:

(i) A cuboid with dimensions 10 cm, 8 cm and 6 cm
(ii) A cube of side 8 cm
(iii) A cylinder with base radius 7 cm and height 7 cm
(iv) A sphere of radius 7 cm

(i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

(ii), (i), (iv), (iii)

(iii), (ii), (i), (iv)

(iv), (iii), (ii), (i)

An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns to city A by the same route. The speed of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys were constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h, respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?

A set of 4 parallel lines intersect with another set of 5 parallel lines. How many parallelograms are formed?

To pass a test, a candidate needs to answer at least 2 out of 3 questions correctly. A total of 6,30,000 candidates appeared for the test. Question A was correctly answered by 3,30,000 candidates. Question B was answered correctly by 2,50,000 candidates. Question C was answered correctly by 2,60,000 candidates. Both questions A and B were answered correctly by 1,00,000 candidates. Both questions B and C were answered correctly by 90,000 candidates. Both questions A and C were answered correctly by 80,000 candidates. If the number of students answering all questions correctly is the same as the number answering none, how many candidates failed to clear the test?

30,000

2,70,000

3,90,000

4,20,000

If x²+ x − 1 = 0 what is the value of x⁴ + 1/x⁴ ?

10.

Consider an unfair coin. The probability of getting heads is 0.6. If you toss this coin twice, what is the probability that the first or the second toss is heads?

0.56

0.64

0.84

0.96

1 out of 6

11.

If serum is removed from the growth medium of human embryonic kidney cell line (HEK), then the cells will

proliferate faster

proliferate normally

undergo cell cycle arrest

undergo immediate apoptosis

12.

The repeat sequence of telomere in humans is

5'-TATAAT-3'

5'-TTAGGG-3'

5'-GGGCCC-3'

5'-AAAAAA-3'

13.

If a segment of a sense strand of DNA is 5'-ATGGACCAGA-3', then the resulting RNA sequence after transcription is

5'-AGACCAGGTA-3'

5'-UCUGGUCCAU-3'

5'-UACCUGGUCU-3'

5'-AUGGACCAGA-3'

14.

Which one of the following is an example of a neurotoxin?

Cholera toxin

Streptolysin-O

Botulinum toxin

Diphtheria toxin

15.

Which of the following components constitute a molecular mechanics force field?

P. Bond stretching
Q. Bond angle bending
R. Torsional bond rotation
S. Non-bonded interactions

P and Q only

P, Q and R only

P, Q and S only

P, Q, R and S

16.

Which one of the following BLAST search programs is used to identify homologs of a genomic DNA query in a protein sequence database?

blastp

blastn

blastx

tblastn

17.

A mixture contains three similarly sized peptides P, Q and R. The peptide P is positively charged, Q is weakly negative and R is strongly negative. If this mixture is passed through an ion-exchange chromatography column containing an anionic resin, their order of elution will be

P, Q, R

R, Q, P

Q, R, P

P, Q and R elute together

18.

Which one of the following is INCORRECT about protein structures?

A protein fold is stabilized by favorable non-covalent interactions

All parts of a fold can be classified as helices, strands or turns

Two non-covalent atoms cannot be closer than the sum of their van der Waals radii

The peptide bond is nearly planar

19.

Which one of the following metabolic processes in mammalian cells does NOT occur in the mitochondria?

Citric acid cycle

Oxidative phosphorylation

Fatty acid β-oxidation

Glycolysis

20.

Which one of the following is NOT a principal component of innate immunity?

Mucosal epithelia

Dendritic cells

Complement system

Memory B-cells

2 out of 6

21.

Which of the following technique(s) can be used to study conformational changes in myoglobin?

P. Mass spectrometry
Q. Fluorescence spectroscopy
R. Circular dichroism spectroscopy
S. Light microscopy

P only

P and S only

Q and R only

S only

22.

Which one of the following bioreactor configurations is the basis for a trickling biological filter?

Stirred tank

Packed bed

Air lift

Fluidized bed

23.

Cell type A secretes molecule X into the culture medium. Cell type B in the same culture responds to the molecule X by expressing protein Y. Which one of the following modes of signaling represents the interaction between A and B?

Autocrine

Juxtacrine

Paracrine

Intracrine

24.

Which one of the following statements is true for actin?

Actin filament is structurally polarized and the two ends are not identical

De novo actin polymerization is a single-step process

The pointed end of the actin filaments is the fast growing end

Actin forms spindle fibers during mitosis

25.

Standard error is

the probability of a type I error in a statistical test

the error in estimating a sample standard deviation

the standard deviation of a variable that follows standard normal distribution

the standard deviation of distribution of sample means

26.

Which one of the following techniques is used to monitor RNA transcripts, both temporally and spatially?

Northern blotting

In situ hybridization

Southern blotting

Western blotting

27.

Identify the character based method(s) used for the construction of a phylogenetic tree.

P. Maximum parsimony
Q. Neighbor joining
R. Maximum likelihood
S. Bootstrapping

Q only

P and R only

Q and S only

S only

28.

Which one of the following is the solution for cos²x + 2cosx + 1 = 0, for values of x in the range of 0° < x < 360°?

45°

90°

180°

270°

29.

Which one of the following plant secondary metabolites is a natural insecticide?

Digitoxin

Pyrethrin

Salicylic acid

Avenacin A-1

30.

The determinant of the matrix is _________
(⁴_-3 ^-6_-2)

3 out of 6

31.

The variable z has a standard normal distribution. If P(0 ≤ z ≤ 1) = 0.34, then P(z² > 1) is equal to (up to two decimal places) _________

32.

The absorbance of a solution of tryptophan measured at 280 nm in a cuvette of 2.0 cm path length is 0.56 at pH 7. The molar extinction coefficient (ε)
for tryptophan at 280 nm is 5600 M^-1cm^-1 at pH 7. The concentration of tryptophan (in μM) in the solution is _________

33.

A single stem cell undergoes 10 asymmetric cell divisions. The number of stem cells at the end is _________

34.

Genomic DNA isolated from a bacterium was digested with a restriction enzyme that recognizes a 6-base pair (bp) sequence. Assuming random distribution of bases, the average length (in bp) of the fragments generated is _________

35.

In leguminous plants, both the rhizobium genes and the plant genes influence nodulation and nitrogen fixation. Which one of the following functions is NOT encoded by the host plant genes?

Production of inducers that modify rhizobial cell wall

Production of flavonoid inducers

Establishment of contact between bacteria and legume

Root hair curling

36.

Which of the following cytokines are endogenous pyrogens?

P. Tumor necrosis factor-α
Q. Interleukin-1
R. Transforming growth factor-β
S. Interleukin-10

P and Q only

P and R only

R and S only

Q and S only

37.

Match the classes of RNA molecules in Group I with their functions in Group II.

Group I.......................................................................................Group II
P. snoRNA.................................................................................1. Protects germline from transposable elements
Q. piRNA...................................................................................2. Blocks translation of selected mRNA
R. miRNA..................................................................................3. Template for telomere elongation
S. snRNA..................................................................................4. Modification and processing of rRNA
................................................................................................ 5. Splicing of RNA transcripts

P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4

P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-5

P-1, Q-4, R-5, S-2

P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-5

38.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] Assertion: Ab initio gene finding algorithms that predict protein coding genes in eukaryotic genomes are not completely accurate. Reason: Eukaryotic splice sites are difficult to predict.

Both [a] and [r] are false

[a] is true but [r] is false

Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

39.

Which one of the following amino acids is catalyzed by activated macrophages to produce reactive nitrogen species?

Arginine

Asparagine

Cysteine

Histidine

40.

Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r] Assertion: The association constant in water for the G-C base pair is three times lower than that for the A-T base pair. Reason: There are three hydrogen bonds in the G-C base pair and two in the A-T base pair.

Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

[a] is false but [r] is true

Both [a] and [r] are false

Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

4 out of 6

41.

Which one of the combinations of the following statements is true about antibody structure?

P. Limited proteolysis of rabbit IgG with the enzyme pepsin generates two antigen-binding regions (Fab) and an Fc fragment
Q. Limited proteolysis of rabbit IgG with the enzyme papain generates a single bivalent antigen-binding region F(ab')2 and peptide fragments
R. The Fc fragment of IgG can self-associate and crystallize into a lattice
S. The F(ab')2 fragment of IgG is composed of both light and heavy chains

P and Q only

P and R only

R and S only

Q and S only

42.

Which one of the following statements is true with regard to processing and presentation of protein antigens?

In the class II MHC pathway, protein antigens in the cytosol are processed by proteasomes

In the class I MHC pathway, extracellular protein antigens are endocytosed into vesicles and processed

In the class I MHC pathway, transporter associated antigen processing (TAP) protein is required for translocating processed peptides generated in the cytosol

Invariant chain in endoplasmic reticulum is involved in transport of peptides and loading of class I MHC

43.

Which of the following are true about bacterial superoxide dismutase?

P. Present in obligate aerobes
Q. Present in facultative anaerobes
R. Present in aerotolerant anaerobes
S. Absent in obligate aerobes

P and Q only

P, Q and R only

P and R only

Q and S only

44.

Which of the following are true with regard to anaerobic respiration in bacteria?

P. The final electron acceptor is an inorganic substance other than molecular oxygen
Q. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule is more than that produced in aerobic respiration
R. The number of ATP molecules produced per glucose molecule is less than that produced in aerobic respiration
S. Only substrate level phosphorylation is used to generate ATP

P and S only

Q and S only

P and R only

P, Q and S only

45.

Match the industrial products mentioned in Group I with their producer organisms in Group II

Group I...................................................Group II
P. Citric acid......................................1. Trichoderma viride
Q. Cellulase.......................................2. Clostridium acetobutylicum
R. Vitamin B12...................................3. Aspergillus niger
S. Butanol..........................................4. Propionibacterium freudenreichii

P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2

P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3

P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

46.

5' capping of mRNA transcripts in eukaryotes involves the following events:
P. Addition of GMP on the 5' end
Q. Removal of γ-phosphate of the triphosphate on first base at the 5' end
R. 5'-5' linkage between GMP and the first base at 5' end
S. Addition of methyl group to N7 position of guanine
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of events?

P, Q, R, S

P, R, Q, S

Q, P, R, S

Q, P, S, R

47.

Calculate the following integral (up to two decimal places) ∫¹₀ (x + 3)(x + 1)dx =_________

48.

The probability distribution for a discrete random variable X is given below.
X P(X)
1 0.3
2 0.4
3 0.2
4 0.1
The expectation value of X is (up to one decimal place) _________

49.

If 1 + r + r² + r³ + ⋯ ∞ = 1.5,
then, 1 + 2r + 3r² + 4r³ + ⋯ ∞ = (up to two decimal places) _________

50.

Moist heat sterilization of spores at 121 ^oC follows first order kinetics as per the expression:
dN/dt= -k_dN
where, N is the number of viable spores, t is the time, k_d is the rate constant and dN/dt is the rate of change of viable spores.
If k_d value is 1.0 min^-1, the time (in minutes) required to reduce the number of viable spores
from an initial value of 10¹⁰ to a final value of 1 is (up to two decimal places) _________

5 out of 6

51.

An aqueous solution containing 6.8 mg/L of an antibiotic is extracted with amyl acetate. If the partition coefficient of the antibiotic is 170 and the ratio of water to solvent is 85, then the extraction factor is _________

52.

A microbial strain is cultured in a 100 L stirred fermenter for secondary metabolite production. If the specific rate of oxygen uptake is 0.4 h^-1
and the oxygen solubility in the broth is 8 mg/L, then the volumetric mass transfer coefficient (K_L_a) (in s^-1) of oxygen
required to achieve a maximum cell concentration of 12 g/L is (up to two decimal places) _________

53.

In a chemostat, the feed flow rate and culture volume are 100 ml/h and 1.0 L, respectively. With glucose as substrate, the values of μ_maxand Ks
are 0.2 h^-1 and 1 g/L, respectively. For a glucose concentration of 10 g/L in the feed, the effluent substrate concentration (in g/L) is _________

54.

Mammalian cells in active growth phase were seeded at a density of 1x10⁵cells/ml. After 72 hours, 1x10⁶ cells/ml were obtained.
The population doubling time of the cells in hours is (up to two decimal places) _________

55.

Yeast converts glucose to ethanol and carbon dioxide by glycolysis as per the following reaction:
C₆H₁₂O₆->2C₂H₅OH + 2CO₂
Assuming complete conversion, the amount of ethanol produced (in g) from 200 g of glucose is (up to two decimal places) _________

56.

At the end of a batch culture, glucose solution is added at a flow rate of 200 ml/h. If the culture volume after 2 h of glucose addition is 1000 ml, the initial culture volume (in ml) is _________

57.

Consider the following alignment of two DNA sequences:
AGTAAC
AA----AC
Assuming an affine gap scoring scheme of an identity matrix for substitution, a gap initiation penalty of 1 and a gap extension
penalty of 0.1, the score of the alignment is (up to one decimal place) _________

58.

First order deactivation rate constants for soluble and immobilized amyloglucosidase enzyme are 0.03 min^-1 and 0.005 min^-1, respectively.
The ratio of half-life of the immobilized enzyme to that of the soluble enzyme is (rounded off to the nearest integer) _________

59.

Consider a simple uni-substrate enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics. When the enzyme catalyzed reaction was carried out in the presence of 10 nM concentration of an inhibitor, there was no change in the maximal velocity. However, the slope of the Lineweaver-Burk plot increased 3-fold. The dissociation constant for the enzyme-inhibitor complex (in nM) is _________

60.

A rod shaped bacterium has a length of 2 μm, diameter of 1 μm and density the same as that of water. If proteins constitute 15% of the cell mass
and the average protein has a mass of 50 kDa, the number of proteins in the cell is _________
(1 Da = 1.6 × 10^-24g)

6 out of 6

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